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  • From: "David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] RE: Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone
  • Date: Sat, 07 Aug 2004 10:35:25 +1000


Hi Chris,

Jouon-Muraoka seem to make the point that gender must be distinguished from gender ending (§89a). I'm aware that this is at least the case with double-gender plurals, where an -im ending emphasises the quantity whereas an -ot ending emphasises an entity consisting of indiviual parts. I think Diethelm Michel has looked at all of this as well as singular nouns in Grundlegung einer hebräischen Syntax: Teil 1: Sprachwissenschaftliche Methodik, Genus und Numerus des Nomens (Neukirchener, 1997) but I don't have a copy nor can I locate one.

David Kummerow.

Message: 1
Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 14:03:14 +0200
From: "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone.
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
Message-ID: <FAEIIKJEKGHNGLFNMDBCGEHCCCAA.wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

A two part question,,,

Does the FEMINIE of a noun (especially when in most instances the noun is
descended directly from the verb) sometimes carry the abstract idea of a
more concrete definition? I also think on some of the place names in both
exodus and numbers that are in the feminine, when a masculine would seem
just as appropriate.

My second question INDIRECTLY related asks why the word for 'faith' in Deut
32:20 is masculine since this is the ONLY occurence of the word in Masc, and
I see no grammatical reason for this. I have an archaic definition of the
words in both masc and fem that say the former implies 'Established' and the
latter 'to be fimly convinced'' but this is an after the fact matter and a
classic tautology.

Thankyou Chris.

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  • [b-hebrew] RE: Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone, David Kummerow, 08/06/2004

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