Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>]

Hi Chris,

Jouon-Muraoka seem to make the point that gender must be distinguished from 
gender ending (§89a). I'm aware that this is at least the case with 
double-gender plurals, where an -im ending emphasises the quantity whereas 
an -ot ending emphasises an entity consisting of indiviual parts. I think 
Diethelm Michel has looked at all of this as well as singular nouns in 
Grundlegung einer hebräischen Syntax: Teil 1: Sprachwissenschaftliche 
Methodik, Genus und Numerus des Nomens (Neukirchener, 1997) but I don't have 
a copy nor can I locate one.

David Kummerow.

> Message: 1
> Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 14:03:14 +0200
> From: "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone.
> To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
> Message-ID: <FAEIIKJEKGHNGLFNMDBCGEHCCCAA.wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
> Content-Type: text/plain;       charset="iso-8859-1"
>
> A two part question,,,
>
> Does the FEMINIE of a noun (especially when in most instances the noun is
> descended directly from the verb) sometimes carry the abstract idea of a
> more concrete definition?   I also think on some of the place names in both
> exodus and numbers that are in the feminine, when a masculine would seem
> just as appropriate.
>
> My second question INDIRECTLY related asks why the word for 'faith' in Deut
> 32:20 is masculine since this is the ONLY occurence of the word in Masc, 
> and
> I see no grammatical reason for this.  I have an archaic definition of the
> words in both masc and fem that say the former implies 'Established' and 
> the
> latter 'to be fimly convinced'' but this is an after the fact matter and a
> classic tautology.
>
> Thankyou Chris.

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