Biblical Hebrew Forum

[RGmyrken AT aol.com]

   In The Dead Sea Scrolls Uncovered, by R. Eisenman and M. Wise, p. 57, is 
the following comment, for what it's worth:
   "Another interesting reference is to 'the land of Jerusalem' in Line 2 of 
Fragment 1.  This greatly enhances the senes of historicity of the whole, 
since Judah or 'Yehud' (the name of the area on coins of the Persian period) 
by 
this time consisted of little more than Jerusalem and its immediate environs."

Best regards,
Russell Gmirkin

> >I hope this is not too off topic, but I was puzzled to read in Geza 
> Vermes.
> >'The Complete Dead Sea Scrolls in English' (New York: Penguin Books, 1997) 
> on
> >p.566 where he translates "A Jeremiah Apocryphon" (4Q384-5B). The beginning
> >line starts off, "...Jeremiah the Prophet [departed] from before the Lord
> >(YHWH)...[to accompany the] the captives who were taken from the land of
> >Jerusalem and came [to...Nebuchadnezzar,] king of Babel..." I am puzzled by
> >the expression "land of Jerusalem". Jerusalem is a city, and always 
> designated
> >as such at least in the MT. I am wondering if anyone has a clue as to why
> >Jerusalem is designated as "land" here? Thanks.
> 
> Tony,
> I think the text you are asking about is:
> 
> 4Q385a f18ia_b:2 [ -- wyc) ]yrmyh hnby) mlpny yhwh
> 4Q385a f18ia_b:3 [wylK (M h]#b)yM )#r n#bw m)rC yrw#lyM wyb)w
> 
> the expression:  m)rC yrw#lyM "from land of Jerusalem"
> 
> Why does it say this? Someone else can answer that.
> 
> greetings,
> Clay Bartholomew 
> 
>