Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>]

On Mon, 21 Jun 2004 23:07:41 +0100 "Philip Engmann"
<phil-eng AT ighmail.com> writes:
> What possible basis could there be for a translation, i.e. the
> Septuagint, to be regarded as the authoritative text?
> 
> Philip
>
+++++++++++++++++ 
> Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] MT for all OT Translations?
> 
> Dear Philip,
> 
> No. In several eastern European languages the Septuagint is used as 
> the
> textual base. This is due to the fact that the Orthodox churches in
> those areas regard it as the authoritative text.
> 
> Best wishes,
> 
> Reinier de Blois

________________

In the case of the Eastern Churches this involves a tradition which
developed over the centuries.  It most likely began because the
Septuagint was largely the Bible of the early church and the New
Testament was also written in Greek.  There are cases where tradition
similarly dictates a version other than the Massoretic text or the
Septuagint -- namely the Syriac.  I was rather surprised to learn when
discussing translation issues with a priest from a Syriac Church that
they would translate from the Peshitta rather than use the Greek of the
New Testament.

gfsomsel