Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Philip Engmann" <phil-eng AT ighmail.com>]

What possible basis could there be for a translation, i.e. the
Septuagint, to be regarded as the authoritative text?

Philip


-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Reinier de
Blois
Sent: 21 June 2004 14:11
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] MT for all OT Translations?

Dear Philip,

No. In several eastern European languages the Septuagint is used as the
textual base. This is due to the fact that the Orthodox churches in
those areas regard it as the authoritative text.

Best wishes,

Reinier de Blois

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org 
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of 
> Philip Engmann
> Sent: maandag 21 juni 2004 13:01
> To: 'b-hebrew'
> Subject: [b-hebrew] MT for all OT Translations?
> 
> 
> "All Bible Societies in the world use the Masoretic Text for 
> Old Testament translations and note the variants in the footnotes".
>  
> Would you agree with the above statement?
>  
> Philip Engmann
>  
>  
>  
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