Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Hello board members,  I do not want to open a fiery debate about the
infamous use of the WAV conjunction/consecutive since I have read many of
your hot debates about this matter.

What I really would like to appreciate is this: WHY is the tense of the
classical hebrew verb, for the greater part, dictated by this one letter
prefix.  While I understand that classical hebrew really only exists in the
PERFECT and IMPERFECT 'idea'  --  I wondered if there was some explanation
for the central position that this WAV occupies in the hebraic thinking of
'time'?  Past, present and future tenses seem such a logical way to
ravel  --  but is this really a MODERN CONCEPT in language?

I know that context plays a part in determining 'time' but this 'context' is
an emphasis used in the translation process.  The hebrews did not need to
translate but simply 'understand'.  The WAV plays a hugely important role
and one that IRONICALLY leads to quite some debate rather than clarity in
translation.

I will appreciate all your comments.

Thankyou - Chris.