Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>]

W:Ha)fDfM YfDa( )eT_XaW.fH )i$:T.oW WaT.aHaR WaT."LeD . . . .

I'm not sure what you mean by "descriptive absence."  Do you mean that it
fails to describe the form for you?  It is a pe yod verb impf 3 fs with
W-consec from YfLaD.  This appears to have originally been a pe waw verb
which accounts for the difference in vowels.  BDB states that this occurs
61 times (though BDB doesn't describe the form either.  For a description
you would probably need an analytical lexicon -- which I don't
particularly recommend unless you can limit your usage to only those
cases where you're really stuck).  I did a quick search and found 124
occurrences.  I must confess that I haven't checked each of these, but a
cursory survey seems to confirm them.

gfsomsel
________

On Sat, 22 May 2004 13:10:43 +0200 "wattswestmaas"
<wattswestmaas AT eircom.net> writes:
> Dear All,
> 
> Please could someone enlighten me with their expertise:  This has 
> often
> happened and I need now to understand why.  Sometimes when I look up 
> a verb
> in Even shoshan's concordance there is often a descriptive absence 
> of its
> form under the root.
> 
> For example - Following a reading of Genesis 4:1:  The verb TeLeD
> (supposedly an imperfect that I absolutely can not fit into any 
> known
> conjugation) Working on the premise that I am at fault in my 
> understanding I
> try to look it up.  It is listed on page 468 under number 146. And 
> yes this
> provides, in this instance, no further understanding of the way 
> this
> imperfect?? is conjugated.
> 
> Thankyou, Chris.
> 
> 
> 
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> 

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