Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ken Penner" <pennerkm AT mcmaster.ca>]

Hi Clay,

I haven't seen anyone tackle this one yet. Here is my stab at translating
the DJD notes on the first words of 1QSa 2:12:

)L )T (proposed by JT Milik): God brings out his people, or his 'arm' (Isa
63:12) or Abraham (Jos 24:3). Thus nothing is opposed to the usage of this
expression regarding the Messiah of Israel. But wouldn't one have to see in
the whole phrase )M )TM an allusion to the beginning of Ez 36:12 (with the
LXX variant WHWLDTY for WHWLKTY) which has been understood in a messianic
sense by our inverterate midrashists?

Ken Penner, McMaster/DSS
Dead Sea Scrolls scholars' list owner,
http://mailman.McMaster.CA/mailman/listinfo/g-megillot

> Reading *J.A. Fitzmyer's discussion of this text the one 
> question I wanted
> answered was not addressed. Looking over the entire content 
> of 1QSa I cannot
> figure out what the justification is for supplying  )l as the agent of
> ywlyd. From a discourse perspective )l does not appear elsewhere as an
> explicit agent-participant in 1QSa.
> 
> I know there has been much discussion about how to read ywlyd 
> but what I
> would like to know is what basis is there for supplying )l 
> after ywlyd?
> 
> 1QSa 2:11-12
> [h]w)   [zh mw]#b )n#y h#M [qry)y ]mw(d l(ct hyxd )M ywlyd [)l ]
> )[t ]hm#yx )tM   ybw)[ hkwhN ]rw)# kwl (dt y#r)l wkwl

> *Page 84, The Dead Sea scrolls and Christian origins / Joseph 
> A. Fitzmyer.
> Grand Rapids, Mich. : W.B. Eerdmans Pub. Co., c2000.