Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 26/09/2003 12:05, Trevor Peterson wrote:

> > ===== Original Message From phil-eng AT ighmail.com =====
> > Why does elohim occur in MT Psalm 8:6[5], whereas aggelous occurs in LXX
> > Psalm 8:6[5]?
> >    
>
> I suppose the best person to ask would be the translator who came up with the 
> Greek rendering. Since I don't think that person is on this list, I'll take a 
> stab at an answer. The translator probably felt that elohim has a wider range 
> of meaning than can be captured in any one Greek word (as is often the case 
> when translating from any language to any other). A judgment had to be made as 
> to the meaning of elohim in this context, and angelous seemed like the best 
> rendering to go with. I suspect that the translator had in mind the sense of 
> superhuman beings here, rather than human messengers. I'm assuming, of course, 
> that elohim was in the Vorlage.
>
> Trevor Peterson
> CUA/Semitics
>
>
>  
Maybe the LXX translator was correct. In the Psalms 'elohim can refer to 
heavenly beings (plural), "angels" of some sort e.g. 82:1,6, 97:7, 
138:1, to pagan gods (plural) (if that is actually different), and to 
God (singular). And there is a real difficulty in taking this as a 
reference to God, YHWH, as YHWH 'adonenu is the second person singular 
subject here.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/