Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Walter R. Mattfeld" <mattfeld12 AT charter.net>]

Dave Washburn wrote:
"Why do we have to assume that the term resulted from direct borrowing from
the
Akkadian term?  The most we can say, ISTM, is that they are related, most
likely both descending from a proto-Semitic term.  The fact that the two
terms seem to be related cannot be adduced as proof that the Hebrew term is
nothing more than a loanword that came about because of Assyrian conquest.
This strikes me as nothing more than another unfounded assumption, based on
the notion that the Hebrews never had an original thought in their
collective
life."

Dear Dave,

Are you saying that AT NO TIME EVER did the Hebrews accept into the Hebrew
language "loanwords" ?

If you DO ALLOW that "loanwords" could have been accepted into the Hebrew
language why the "fuss" ?

Regards, Walter
Walter Reinhold Warttig Mattfeld, M.A. Ed.
mattfeld12 AT charter.net
www.bibleorigins.net