Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 2/14/2003 12:44:53 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
markeddy AT adams.net writes:

> Dear Liz,
> My answers are interspersed below.
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" >
> >Dear Mark,
> >Why do you assume David or even a davidic king wrote this psalm?
> 
> That's what the text of the Hebrew Bible says in the Psalm title: LeDaWiD. 
> We have no evidence to
> contradict this statement by the comiler(s) of the Psalms.
> 
> >It is in the third person, and written by a temple or court scribe or
> >poet.
> 
> It is well known that pious Israelites often referred to themselves in the 
> third person. It might be seen
> as boasting to write about oneself in the first person. It is also common 
> in the Psalms and the Prophets
> to switch between persons, sometimes speaking to God in the second person, 
> other times speaking about Him
> in the third person in the same context. (I just ran across this again in 
> Psalm 41. There the author
> refers to himself in both first and third person, and he refers to YHWH in 
> both third and second person.)
> So writing in the third person would prove nothing about the authorship of 
> a passage. But Psalm 110 isn't
> written in the third person. "The LORD said to my Lord ..." has the author 
> writing in the first person:
> "my."
> 
> >He says that YHWH spoke to his Adon, i.e., YHWH spoke to his lord, his
> >boss.
> 
> See my post to Yigel concerning who this "boss" could be.
> 
> >An anonymous poet is speaking, not the king, and certainly not David.
> 
> How can you be "certain" that David was not speaking? The Hebrew Bible says 
> that David composed this. Your
> assertion contradicts the text. What evidence do you have to disprove the 
> text? Many other psalms are
> anonymous. Not this one.
> 
Mark,

To whom then was David speaking?

gfsomsel
>From dwashbur AT nyx.net  Fri Feb 14 12:49:38 2003
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From: Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>
To: Polycarp66 AT aol.com, lizfried AT umich.edu,
        b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: Fw: [b-hebrew] le DWD - One more time
Date: Fri, 14 Feb 2003 10:37:16 -0700
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> lizfried AT umich.edu writes:
> > Bringing this back to B-Hebrew, what is the meaning of the prescript =
le?
> > I know that in the pre-exilic period, l'PN meant "belonging to."
> > In the Aramaic letters of Ezra, le is used as a prescript meaning "to
> > PN."
> > This use has been considered to be Hellenistic and Roman, not Persian=
=2E
> > In the Persian period the convention is 'el or 'al.
> > Does anyone know of an earlier use than the Hellenistic period in whi=
ch
> > le could mean "addressed to" rather than "belonging to"?
> > As regards the psalms, I would imagine that the postscripts were
> > added in the Roman period, since if I recall correctly, they do not
> > exist at Qumran.
> > If so, then it would mean "dedicated to" not "belonging to."
> > Even if it does mean "belonging to," I would not interpret it to mean
> > "written by." It would still mean "belonging to" in the sense of
> > "dedicated to."
>

Liz,
Are you saying that the titles to the psalms don't occur at Qumran?  If s=
o,=20
this is incorrect.  Is this what you mean by "postscripts"?

--=20
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur