Biblical Hebrew Forum

["VALEDICTION" <info AT valediction.com>]

I've heard arguments on both sides of the fence regarding possible gap in time between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2.

 

The two most compelling points I've heard on the pro-Gap Theory side report the following:

 

(1)  The Jewish scholars who wrote the Massoretic Text, incorporated "indicators" to guide the reader to correct punctuation.  One such mark is called "Rebhia," which is classified as a "disjunctive accent" intended to notify the reader to pause before proceeding to the next verse because there is a break in the text.  The initial waw which introduces verse 2 should be rendered "but" rather than "and", a dis-junctive rather than a con-junctive, because the last word of verse 1 is separated from verse 2 by means of the disjunctive accent Rebhia, which implies that we are to let our thoughts dwell upon it before passing on to verse 2.

 

(2)  The word "was" in verse 2 can also be translated as "became", implying that between the first two verses of Genesis 1, some sort of catastrophe must have occurred, causing the earth to fall into the formless and void state of which the latter part of verse 2 makes mention.

 

Frankly, I'm not looking to know who's right or who's wrong in this debate of the Gap Theory, because doing so would cause us fall terribly off-topic... but I would simply like to know if either of the two points listed above can be validated in the original language.  I am trying to explore this subject with an open mind.  Is there room to accurately come to such conclusions, or are these linguistical nuances completely unfounded?

 

Your scholarly expertise and input is greatly appreciated!

 

Joe Glean --junior member--