Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Andrew & Debby Kulikovsky <hermeneutics AT kulikovskyonline.net>]

At 08:04 AM 5/09/2002 -0400, Trevor Peterson wrote:
> >===== Original Message From Andrew & Debby Kulikovsky
> <hermeneutics AT kulikovskyonline.net> =====
> >At 05:57 AM 5/09/2002 -0400, Trevor & Julie Peterson wrote:
> >>Andrew wrote:
> >>
> >> > But this just doesn't seem right to me. I'm not sure the infinite
> >> > contruct
> >> > ze't is handled correctly,
> >>
> >>What strikes you as incorrect about it?
> >
> >Why is yamim two years rather than two days?
>
> What does that have to do with the handling of the infinitive construct?

Nothing. That was a different question.

The infinite construct is the subject of the main clause - literally it says:

It happened for days after days at some time (In the course of time?), the 
coming out (at) the end of (after?) 2 days (years?), his bowels came out...

I don't understand what the infinite construct means of how it functions in 
this verse.


cheers,
Andrew
--
Andrew & Debby Kulikovsky
Check out my Biblical Hermeneutics web site:
http://hermeneutics.kulikovskyonline.net

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