Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Andrew & Debby Kulikovsky <hermeneutics AT kulikovskyonline.net>]

At 05:57 AM 5/09/2002 -0400, Trevor & Julie Peterson wrote:
> Andrew wrote:
>
> > But this just doesn't seem right to me. I'm not sure the infinite
> > contruct
> > ze't is handled correctly,
>
> What strikes you as incorrect about it?

Why is yamim two years rather than two days?

> > and I don't understand the contextual reasons
> > for translating yamim as "years" rather than days.
>
> It seems like other examples of this construction (or at least similar) are
> handled the same way. This isn't necessarily meant to provide a solution,
> but it should make the investigation more comprehensive. Check Gen 41:1 and
> Jer 28:3, 11.

All these examples have shanah (year) preceding yamim, so they are not 
really comparable.

Like I said, do you think the rendering I gave previously is a possibility?