Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>]

shalom Hevre,

>Has anyone on this list studied this
> question
> enough to be able to comment on whether or the Greek corresponds more
to a
> Hebrew or an Aramaic source?
> Sincerely,
> Michael Abernathy
> <

In an article in Maarav, 1990, I pointed out the most obvious narrative 
difference between 1st Aramaic and 1st century Hebrew. Edayin
"then" "TOTE". The Semitic style of Mark and Luke did not
come from Aramaic. (Matthew is a more complex question. His 
"tote" style shows an Aramaic stylizing in his Greek.) 

There is a lot more that could be said, but the above is a sort of
watershed characteristic that comes through clearly into Greek.

blessings,

Randall Buth
Jerusalem