Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Michael Abernathy" <mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org>]

I just read  an aricle by Robert Lindsey that I would like some feedback on
(Lindsey, Robert L. "A New Approach to the Synoptic Gospels." Mishkan 17/18,
no. 1992 (1992): 87-106.).  Lindsey comments that when he was translating
the Greek Synoptic Gospels into Hebrew, that much of Luke and Matthew could
be translated word by word into idiomatic even "elegant" Hebrew.  Some
sections of Mark differed in that Mark characteristically uses words not
readily translated into Hebrew (he specifically comments on the Greek phrase
translated "and immediately"). Has anyone on this list studied this question
enough to be able to comment on whether or the Greek corresponds more to a
Hebrew or an Aramaic source?
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy