Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yohanan Goldman <Amirpatrick.Goldman AT unifr.ch>]

> On 8/5/02 9:26 am, Fernando Arias at fernando.arias AT lycos.com wrote:
>
> >  1) Why is Elohim used with a singular meaning in most of Genesis 1 
> > but it has
> >  a plural meaning in Genesis 1:26?
>
> It does not have a plural meaning in Gen 1:26. Here elohim is the subject of
> the verb )MR which is masculine singular. The plural form of (&H has no
> grammatical bearing on the number of Elohim. It is as if I wrote:
>
>     I said, "We should go to the shops today."
>
> The fact that "we" is the subject of my quoted speech does not make me
plural!

Martin,
Is this plural "of exhortation" as Koenig coined it, attested 
elsewhere in Biblical Hebrew ?

Yohanan


--