Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Martin A. Shields" <mshields AT mail.usyd.edu.au>]

On 8/5/02 9:26 am, Fernando Arias at fernando.arias AT lycos.com wrote:

> 1) Why is Elohim used with a singular meaning in most of Genesis 1 but it 
> has
> a plural meaning in Genesis 1:26?

It does not have a plural meaning in Gen 1:26. Here elohim is the subject of
the verb )MR which is masculine singular. The plural form of (&H has no
grammatical bearing on the number of Elohim. It is as if I wrote:

    I said, "We should go to the shops today."

The fact that "we" is the subject of my quoted speech does not make me
plural!

> 2) Why does the verb RM$ in Genesis 1:26 take the prefix of letter H? What 
> is
> the meaning of that prefix in combination with the verb?

The verb here is a participle being used with an adjectival meaning, so the
text reads something like "the creeping things which creep...".

Regards,

Martin.

-- 
Martin A. Shields

Email:  mshields AT mail.usyd.edu.au
WWW:    http://www-personal.usyd.edu.au/~mshields/

"Don't let your heart be puffed-up by your knowledge; don't be confident
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                                                            - Ptah Hotep