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b-hebrew - Re: Bara: unique?

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  • From: "Jason A. Hare" <language_lover64801 AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Bara: unique?
  • Date: Tue, 26 Mar 2002 14:11:26 -0500


L:HAB:RIY):AKEM [lehavri'achem] comes from a different root-meaning
altogether. It is "to make fat," and only occurs in the hiphil (and only
here?). B.FRF) does not have a hiphil form, does it? I can see BFRF)
with a qal ("he created") and niphal ("he was created"), but a hiphil ("he
caused to create"), I'm not sure. Does that occur anywhere? It's not at
all the meaning in this verse (1 Sam. 2.29).

Regards,
Jason

> What do you think of 1 Sam 2.29 in this regard? (Sorry about that R")$iYT in
> there).
>
> LfMfH TiB:(:a+W. B.:ZiB:XiY W.B:MiN:XfTiY ):a$eR CiW.iYTiY Mf(oWN
> WaT.:KaB."D
> )eT_BfNeYKf MiM.eNiY ** L:HaB:RiY):aKeM ** M"R")$iYT K.fL_MiN:XaT Yi&Rf)"L
> L"(aM.iY
>
> GfSomsel




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