Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 3/26/2002 6:09:05 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
iangoldsmith1969 AT yahoo.co.uk writes:

>In the hope of distracting you from the b'reshit
>debate and so freeing up my mailbox....

>Is it true to say that the verb 'bara' to create is
>solely used in connection with God and that whilst man
>may 'make' or 'do' etc, he is never recorded in the 
>OT as 'creating'/'bara'?
___________

Yes, it is becoming somewhat tedious; I agree.

What do you think of 1 Sam 2.29 in this regard? (Sorry about that R")$iYT in 
there).

LfMfH TiB:(:a+W. B.:ZiB:XiY W.B:MiN:XfTiY ):a$eR CiW.iYTiY Mf(oWN WaT.:KaB."D 
)eT_BfNeYKf MiM.eNiY  ** L:HaB:RiY):aKeM **  M"R")$iYT K.fL_MiN:XaT Yi&Rf)"L 
L"(aM.iY

GfSomsel