Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Stabnow" <dstabno AT lifeway.com>]

First, do not be too quick to assume that the "imperfects" in v. 21 imply
future tense.  It is not that easy, especially in poetry.  It could be
customary: "The Lord (typically) rewards me according to my righteousness,"
or, "The Lord has always rewarded me according to my righteousness."  You
also need to look at all the verb forms in the book, and the patterns from
section to section, and try to see how the formal structure relates to the
semantic intention of the author with regard to the temporal frame.

Second, you say, "Further, the second clause of that verse suggests that
the subject does not currently possess righteousness, for he is not the
possessor of purified hands."  This depends on two things: the tense of the
translation, as above, and assumptions regarding David's willingness to
claim sinlessness.  Do not assume that because of David's past it is
impossible for him to do so.  You will see in the next four verses he
clearly considers himself "blameless."  There are also a few other places
in the Psalms where the psalmist does the same.  The theological
explanation is that he considers himself sinless with regard to this
situation, not with regard to his whole life.

Third, as in Gen 50:15 and Hos 12:15, the hifil of *$WB* can mean "repay in
accordance with."  If this is the meaning in the second part, *GML* in the
first part probably means "do (good or bad) in accordance with," rather
than "finish."

Dave Stabnow