Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Schmuel <schmuel AT bigfoot.com>]

Shalom Biblical Hebrew,

The Traditional Jewish idea is that Adonai (Adonoy in newyawkese) can
only be used in referring to the Creator (YHWH, whom they often called
Hashem- the Name), and thus Lord when from Adonai is always capitalized......

In  two cases the KJV translates adonai (adonoy) as lord rather that Lord

Ezra 10:3
Now therefore let us make a covenant with our God to put away all the wives,
and such as are born of them, according to the counsel of **my lord**,
and of those that tremble at the commandment of our  God; and let it
be done according to the law.

Isaiah 21:8
And he cried, A lion: **My lord**, I stand continually upon the watchtower
 in the daytime, and I am set in my ward whole nights:

Interestingly, two Jewish versions (JPS 1917 - 1985) has Ezra as "the LORD"
(as if it was the tetragrammaton) rather than Lord, I don't know why that
would be... (I don't have handy the other Jewish translations to check) ...

Why such a disparity in translating these verses, both in the KJV and
the Jewish translations, can anyone shed some light ?

(My sense is that Isaiah 21 is a tricky translation, based upon some
 differences in the Jewish Publication Society translations.. )
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A related question ..

In Psalm 110:5 .. The Lord at thy right hand ...  KJV
                         .The Lord is at your right hand .    JPS-1985

Is there any way to determine grammatically whether the
"thy" or "your" is the LORD of Psalms 110:1 or if it refers
to the reader, or the priest after the order of Melchizadek,
or other ...     or is this a theological decision...... :-)

eg.. would He be both at the right hand of YHWH (verse 1)
and also at the readers "right hand" ?

Thank you for the thoughtful and helpful email forum..

Schmuel AT bigfoot.com

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