Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Bearpecs AT aol.com]

In a message dated 9/4/01 2:26:03 PM Eastern Daylight Time, 
biblicalscribe AT hotmail.com writes:
> Or is there another possible theoretical explanation of the lack
> of vowels in many ancient Semetic languages? 


I'm really not sure what the real question is here.  Are you asking why 
SEMITIC languages didn't seem to care much about the vowels, in comparison 
with NON-SEMITIC languages.  If that's the question, the standard answer IMHO 
is sufficient:  Semitic languages rely on consonantal roots which carry 
meaning and on predictable patterns which determine vocalization.  Is there 
something that remains unexplained?
(By the way, note that although Ugaritic otherwise does not indicate vowels, 
it does so at the beginning of words which start with aleph.)