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b-hebrew - Re: Gal 3:16 as midrash (was...)

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  • From: "Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>
  • To: H-Bible <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Gal 3:16 as midrash (was...)
  • Date: Wed, 14 Mar 2001 17:02:39 -0600


On 3/14/01 4:03 PM, "John Ronning" <ronning AT xsinet.co.za> wrote:

> Christian,
>
> Thanks for providing an example for discussion. If that's
> the best you can offer, you've proved my point that Gal 3:16
> is not midrash. Listing a bunch of different possible
> interpretations is quite different from asserting that two
> mutually inconsistent interpretations are both true, which
> is what you have if the usual interpretation of Gal 3:16 is
> correct.

By the way, why does it seem that this list can get so surly? Can't we just
say something like: "I do not find your examples persuasive because..."?

Cb
cbrady @ tulane.edu
--
"It is by the goodness of God that in our country we have
those three unspeakably precious things: freedom of speech,
freedom of conscience, and the prudence never to practice
either of them." --Mark Twain





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