Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Charles David Isbell" <cisbell AT home.com>]

Eduardo M. Acuna wrote in part:  "The Jewish editors of the Tanakh and the
editors of the BHS seems to disagree with you, since they joined with a
maqqep the words <Hebr> )L (MNW <endHebr> in Jeremiah 46:16 ... "
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Has anyone claimed that this prepositional phrase in Jeremiah is a proper
name?  This is simply "to our [own] people."
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Acuna continues:  "... and maintained separated as two words <Hebr> (MNW )L
<endHebr> in Isaiah 7:14, 8:8 and 8:10.
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How do you figure?  Both Isaiah 7:14 and 8:8 are a single word, clearly a
proper name in 7:14, and apparently the same name in 8:8.  But 8:10 is
separated by the te`amim [`imannu with tiph-hah and 'el with silluq] into
two words, and used as a play on the name mentioned twice in the immediate
context.  Note that the name in 7:14 and 8:8 is not separated into two words
by the te`amim.  The first mark is a meteg, the second the silluq in both
instances.  In all three cases, the English translation appropriately would

read "God IS with us" with expressed copula that is unnecessary in BH.  But
how do these three relate at all to Jeremiah 46:16?  What am I missing?

Charles David Isbell