Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Dear Dan, et. al.

>
> It should not, cannot, and does not *change* the meaning. I'm against the
> idea that the NT writers or any other interpreter can or should change the
> meaning of any text. They may argue logical conclusions, expand, give
> implications, interpret what was formerly ambiguous or elusive in meaning,
> but they can never alter or reinterpret the meaning of a passage.
>
This is precisely the difficulty tho.
NT writers did change the meaning to suit their
agenda. Yet the new meaning often is assumed to be the
original meaning. Inerrentists often cannot believe that the
NT writer is not using the word according to its original intent.
One example is Paul's use of the word 'seed.' It is obvious that
when God says to Abraham that his seed will number more than
the stars in heaven or the number of grains of sand on the beach
that he was not talking about one seed.Yet that is how Paul uses
the term. Paul changes the meaning of the term to suit the point
he's trying to make. He feels free to do that.
How do we know that the author of GMt isn't doing the same thing?

Liz

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