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b-hebrew - LXX...perhaps misleading?

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  • From: Tsadowq AT aol.com
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: LXX...perhaps misleading?
  • Date: Mon, 5 Feb 2001 16:19:27 EST



Previous Thread: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew (once more)

Hello everyone,

In a message dated 02/05/2001 11:23:38 AM
Mountain Standard Time, Peter_Kirk AT sil.org writes:
<< The relevant question for this list is not racial origin of
the Matthew but whether the author, whoever he or she
might be, knew enough Hebrew to understand Isaiah 7:14
properly, or rather had to rely on the perhaps misleading
LXX translation.>>

I find this interesting: "or rather had to rely on the perhaps
misleading LXX translation". This comment is remarkable
to me, as my own studies in biblical Greek appeared to
indicate that many passages from the New Testament
were actually being quoted from the LXX.

It has been many years since I remember noticing this,
but I believe that I first found the anomaly when reading
from LK 4:17-21.

Was Jesus really quoting from the LXX?...or did Matthew,
(at some later point in time), realize the significance of this
Temple event and attempt to quote Jesus from memory --
using the LXX for a reference?

If the LXX is "perhaps misleading", what are the
ramifications of this document being so often
quoted from by New Testament authors?

While this is not specifically a biblical Hebrew question,
I believe it to be a valid point of discussion nonetheless.

It has been quite a while since I researched this issue,
and I would appreciate hearing any other comments or
correction offered toward this end.

Best regards,
Glen









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