Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Brian Tucker" <editor AT journalofbiblicalstudies.org>]

----- Original Message -----
From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos AT hotmail.com>

>   I had a question re: Job 2:9. The AV reads the words of Job's wife to
her
> husband as "...curse God, and die." in light of Job's tragedy. The Hebrew
> however has "BaReCH" if my memory serves me right, and that word generally
> means to "bless". Yet English translations render it "curse", even though
> the MT does not use the word which means "curse", namely 'aRaR. Why do
> English translations render it "Curse" instead of "Bless"? Many thanks.


BRK in (Gen 9:1) is a piel verb meaning ...blesses men. It's antithetical to
a curse, however an indomatic usage is listed as well, (BDB, 138) [Maybe
like 'that's bad' can be - something unacceptable, however in idomatic
usage, it can mean 'something really astounding.' The usage here is similar
to Genesis 1:22, 28 and intimates "the divine blessing over creation.on the
covenant people.in particular empowering them to exceptional fecundity"
(9:7). (NIDOTTE, 1:758-759). To bless in the OT means "to endue with power
for  success, prosperity, fecundity, longevity, etc." It is frequently
contrasted with cursing. (TWOT, 285).
)RR in (9:25) is a qal passive participle meaning curse from )RR (BDB, 76).
The curse serves as a deterrent and judgment when "the curse operates as
judgment, privation or servitude may be involved." (NIDOTTE, 1:826). The
verb is also used twelve times as an antonym of  BRK (Gen 9:25-26;  Gen
12:3; Gen 27:29; etc.). (TWOT, 173-174).

Does anyone know if )RR is used anywhere to mean bless, idomatically?


Brian Tucker
Riverview, MI
editor AT journalofbiblicalstudies.org
http://journalofbiblicalstudies.org