Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dan Wagner <Dan.Wagner AT dstm.com>]

Kevin Barney suggests, "It may be that the name change was posited as an
aetiological explanation of the presence of two different forms of Abraham's
name in the tradition."

So you agree with the antecedent historicity of the Abram->Abraham name
change before Genesis was written (due to an Aramaizing he'), but posit that
someone later invented an explanation for this well-known change? If so,
somehow that's more difficult for me than just accepting it as an entirely
historical account. Name meanings had great significance, and such changes
were common. But i am unaware of any name changes of this nature that are
"purely an accident"; they are always deliberate and significant in the OT
(e.g., Jacob->Israel, Sarah, Hoshea-> Joshua [though without editorial
comment, significance is obvious], Daniel & company in Babel, Magor-missabib
in Jer., Isa. 62:2-4, etc.). To suggest otherwise for Abraham seems to me
strange and unnecessary at best.

Dan Wagner

-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin L. Barney [mailto:klbarney AT yahoo.com]
Sent: Tuesday, November 21, 2000 15:48
To: Biblical Hebrew
Subject: Re: exegesis per ELOHIM as a female noun:


It may be that the name change was posited as an aetiological explanation
of the presence of two different forms of Abraham's name in the tradition.

(Sorry that I can't paste the message I am responding to.  I am on digest,
so I post through the web site.)

Kevin L. Barney
Hoffman Estates, Illinois
klbarney AT yahoo.com

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