Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dan Wagner <Dan.Wagner AT dstm.com>]

Kevin Barney says, "A very similar phenomenon can be seen in the names Abram
and Abraham (the latter Aramaized with a mediate he' also)."

What then is the significance of the deliberate name change, if this also is
"purely an accident of the Aramaizing he'"? I understood it to be a change
from "exalted/great father" to "father of a multitude" as supported also
from the context.

Dan Wagner

-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin L. Barney [mailto:klbarney AT yahoo.com]
Sent: Tuesday, November 21, 2000 14:09
To: Biblical Hebrew
Subject: Re: exegesis per ELOHIM as a female noun:


I think several listers have correctly observed that this question had its
origin in an incorrect assumption that the -ah ending of 'eloah is
necessarily a marker of feminine gender.  I just thought I would add some
info as to the derivation of that he'.  You start with 'el (Akk. 'ilu),
the plural of which is 'elim.  I believe 'elohim is an expanded form of
'elim, reflecting a mediate he' based on Aramaic influence (this point is
made in TDOT).  A very similar phenomenon can be seen in the names Abram
and Abraham (the latter Aramaized with a mediate he' also).  'Eloah is
then a late singular, derived backwards from the plural 'elohim.

If this derivation is correct, then the apparent feminine ending on 'eloah
is purely an accident of the Aramaizing he'.  The word is masculine.

Kevin L. Barney
Hoffman Estates, Illinois
klbarney AT yahoo.com

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