Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jason A. Hare" <language_lover64801 AT yahoo.com>]

One more note:

Having looked up the first Kings passage referenced below, I found some
interesting things.  Here is the passage:

YA`AN 'A:$ER `A:ZFBW.NIY WAY.I$:T.AXA:WW. L:`A$:T.ORET [Ashtoreth]
'E:LOH"Y CIDONIYN LIK:MOW$ [Chemosh] 'E:LOH"Y MOW'FB W.L:MIL:K.OM [Milkom]
'E:LOH"Y B:N"Y `AM.OWN ...

"Because they forsook me and the bowed down to Ashtoreth the goddess of
the Sidonians, to Chemosh the god of Moab, and to Milkom the god of
Ammon."

Because there is good reason, "god" has been changed to "goddess." 
Perhaps the better idea is "deity."  And sense the plural of majesty is
involved, "the supreme deity."  But note that the same form ('LHYM) is
used for the masculines.  This is an interesting discussion, though I
still think that the evidence is weak (perhaps because it is yet to be
presented) concerning the feminine essence of this word.

Jason


> Dear Friends:
>     The best guide to gender for *elohim* would seem to be verb forms used 
> with the noun.  When this noun is used (quite frequently!) of the God of 
> Israel, the corresponding verb is in a masculine singular form.  In 1 Kings 
> 11:33, the noun is used of a female deity worshipped by Israel's neighbors. 
>  In that same sentence (I Kings 11:33), the word "elohim" is used of male 
> non-Israelite deities, as well.
>     But there would seem to be no evidence that the noun itself is 
> feminine.  This is how it looks to me, anyway.
>      Rev. Reggie Ponder, Jr.
>      Mt Tirzah United Methodist Church
>      Timberlake, NC USA
> 

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Jason A. Hare 
Ozark Christian College
1111 N. Main (Strong 220)
Joplin, MO  64801
(877) 207-3881