Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 3/18/2000 6:37:48 PM Central Daylight Time, 
jwest AT highland.net writes:

<< Is it possible that this text is rightly represented in Mt 5:43 whilst the
 MT is corrupt?
  >>

No, I think the MT is precisely correct.  So is Matt 5.43.  The reason being 
that 2 Sam. reports the words of Joab -- WHICH HE MEANT AS BEING CONTRARY TO 
WHAT HE THOUGHT SHOULD BE DONE. (Sorry about that.  With this going through 
the list, I don't know how else to emphasize the point.  I would have made it 
bold if that would have worked).

Of course, since Jerusalem didn't exist and there was no David (as is 
reported), this was never said.  :-)

gfsomsel