Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

Henry,

> >   Can someone help me with an explanations in scholarly literature
> > regarding the basis for the differing versification between the
> > extant HEbrew text, the LXX and English versification?  It not only
> > is virtually impossible to predict verse numbers in the Psalms
> > across languages, but there seems to be no apparent reason for why
> > Joel and Malachi, to name two, are so different in verse numbers,
> > while being equal in content.
> 
> The thing to remember is that only Old Testament verse divisions
> (_not_ verse numberings) are somewhat old -- while Old Testament verse
> numberings, chapter divisions, and chapter numberings are
> post-Masoretic medieval (ca. the 13th century or so).  There was an
> attempt to correlate Christian and Jewish numberings (since one of the
> early purposes of numbering was to provide convenient
> cross-referencing in Jewish-Christian theological debates), but the
> text of the Latin vulgate was somewhat freely divisible, while the
> division of the Hebrew text had to respect the pre-existing Masoretic
> verse boundaries.  In the Psalms, one difference is that all words
> have to belong to a verse in Hebrew, while in most English
> translations the "titles" or "superscriptions" are not included as
> part of a numbered verse.

Thanks for this info.  It clears up a lot regarding the English 
versions.  Expanding on the original question, where did the 
numbering in the LXX come from?  Was it done around the same 
time as some of the others, or is it a separate phenomenon?


Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
Teach me your way, O Lord, and I will walk in your truth;
give me an undivided heart that I may fear your name.
                                   Psalm 86:11