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Psalm 52.5

From: "Tim Redmond" <timr AT net2000ke.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Psalm 52.5
Date: Thu, 17 Feb 2000 22:02:19 +0300

Could someone kindly explain the reason for the dagesh in the resh in the
second word <resh-ayin> in Psalm 52.5? I presume it is a change due to
accents and/or is a dagesh euphonicum. GKC mentions it in 22s with a
referral to 20f but I don't find the explanation very clear.
Many thanks
Tim Redmond
Catholic University of East Africa
Nairobi Kenya
PS I can't find the transliteration scheme. Is there an FAQ?

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Psalm 52.5, Tim Redmond, 02/17/2000
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Psalm 52.5, Polycarp66, 02/17/2000
- Psalm 52.5, Tim Redmond, 02/19/2000
- Re: Psalm 52.5, Henry Churchyard, 02/20/2000