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  • From: "Tim Redmond" <timr AT net2000ke.com>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Psalm 52.5
  • Date: Thu, 17 Feb 2000 22:02:19 +0300


Could someone kindly explain the reason for the dagesh in the resh in the
second word <resh-ayin> in Psalm 52.5? I presume it is a change due to
accents and/or is a dagesh euphonicum. GKC mentions it in 22s with a
referral to 20f but I don't find the explanation very clear.
Many thanks
Tim Redmond
Catholic University of East Africa
Nairobi Kenya
PS I can't find the transliteration scheme. Is there an FAQ?



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