Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ruthy & Baruch" <alster AT comandcom.com>]

Paul wrote:

> George Athas wrote:
> 
> > I noticed that Ezek 37:1, which gives the setting for the Valley of
> Dry Bones prophecy,
> > places the dry bones in _habbiq`ah_. We could translate this as "the
> valley", but this
> > then begs the question, "Which valley?" Why the definite article? Is
> this a reference to
> > the Biqa` Valley in the Lebanon, or to the Rift Valley in general? If
> so, what's the
> > significance of such a reference? Ezekiel does get taken by the spirit
> on a few joyrides
> > around the Near East. So, is this another definite location -- the
> Lebanese Biqa`?
> >
> George, there is at least one more option.  This account was obviously
> written after the vision.  Could it not be that the events of the valley
> were so vivid in his mind that he wrote as if it were known already to
> the reader?  Admittedly, this is only a guess, a possibility.

I think Paul is right - see Ezek 3:22 and 8:4.

Kol Tuv,
Baruch Alster
Kochav Ya`akov, Israel