Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Paul Zellmer" <zellmer AT digitelone.com>]

George Athas wrote:

> I noticed that Ezek 37:1, which gives the setting for the Valley of
Dry Bones prophecy,
> places the dry bones in _habbiq`ah_. We could translate this as "the
valley", but this
> then begs the question, "Which valley?" Why the definite article? Is
this a reference to
> the Biqa` Valley in the Lebanon, or to the Rift Valley in general? If
so, what's the
> significance of such a reference? Ezekiel does get taken by the spirit
on a few joyrides
> around the Near East. So, is this another definite location -- the
Lebanese Biqa`?
>
George, there is at least one more option.  This account was obviously
written after the vision.  Could it not be that the events of the valley
were so vivid in his mind that he wrote as if it were known already to
the reader?  Admittedly, this is only a guess, a possibility.

Why is it that you think it might refer to the Biqa' Valley?  I would
have thought somewhere further south, where the remains of Israelites
might be expected.

Paul

----

Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Isabela, Rep. of Philippines

zellmer AT digitelone.com