Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Kimmo Huovila <kimmo.huovila AT helsinki.fi>]

Jouon-Muraoka §160 k says "Opposite and conflicting notions are less
sharply distinguished than in our languages. Thus &FN") to hate can be
used where we would say not to love..."

Is this rule general in its applicability, or is it very restricted
lexically? Does the rule show some kind of asymmetry (for example not
loving could be expressed with a word whose basic meaning is to hate,
but not hating could not be expressed with a word for loving)?

Kimmo