Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<gs02wmr AT panther.Gsu.EDU>]

Shalom Shalom.....

I'm reading Leviticus 20:13, in the Hebrew(pardon my poor
transliteration):

" iysh shaa'kub zakar' meshkaab 'ishshaah, shAH'nayeem asaah tow'ebAH
mooth mooth dm " (partial)

This verse against homosexuals is appropriated in Rabbinical Jewish
teachings and is supposed to be the "end all be all" to questions of
homosexuality and its sinful nature. However, I saw an interview with a
Biblical History professor at Harvard Theology(his name slips my mind) who
was disputing the Hebrew of the verse. He was saying something to the
effect of the verse being mistranslated, out of context, "before its
time," etc.

Can anyone shed some light on this? What would be the best translation of
the verse, and does it expressely forbid a man->man sexual relationship?

Shalom

Wondell M. Rachman