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b-hebrew - Re: Sabbath Origins (Stephen)

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  • From: Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Sabbath Origins (Stephen)
  • Date: Sun, 05 Dec 1999 08:08:00 +0100


At 14.02 04/12/99 -0500, Stephen C. Carlson wrote:
>At 07:49 AM 12/4/99 +0100, Ian Hutchesson wrote:
>>>This is an unwarrented inference from the text. The text never says
>>>that Adar is non-Hebrew, only that it is the name in Aramaic (SURIAKHi).
>>>In order to draw your inference, you must first establish the linguistic
>>>compentence of the author of 2 Macc (e.g., did he know the difference
>>>between Aramaic and Hebrew?).
>>
>>I think you'd have to establish why the writer uses "Syrian" rather than
>>"Hebrew" which would be the expected term, even if he didn't know the
>>difference between Hebrew and Aramaic. The fact that he used "Syrian" here
>>when he doesn't seem to be using the term "Hebrew" indescriminately in
>>other places, requires one to show that the writer didn't intend "Syrian"
>>instead of "Hebrew".
>
>I don't think I have to establish anything at this point. You are
>the one who is offering a thesis.

This is not correct. I merely quoted a text which said that Adar was from
the Syrian tongue. Under normal circumstances a writer says what they
believe to be true at time of writing. You however want to question that
writer on the factual content of the text. Do you normally challenge the
significance of a writer's use of a word without providing some reasoning
behind the challenge?

>I have merely pointed out one
>leap in your reasoning that needs further substantiation.

I take the writer to say what he means, ie that Adar is from the Syrian
tongue, not the Hebrew. The best you've done so far is to surmise that he
might have been confused and might not have known the difference. On what
grounds?

>The fact that you are unwilling to substantiate your reasoning is your
>problem, not mine.

Stop talking rot, Stephen. You merely complained about my saying Syrian
therefore not Hebrew. Here's what I said:

>>>>(Adar was considered a non-Hebrew
>>>>(Syrian) word by the writer -- or epitomizer -- of 2Maccabees, 15:36.)

Languages form a multiple taxonomy -- one excludes the other -- so the
writer says that Adar is of the Syrian tongue -- which indicates not
Hebrew. You don't like the writer's words. You challenge the writer. So
please explain why. (Why does he deem to say "Syrian" if it had no
significance to him?)


Ian





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