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b-hebrew - Re: Prepositions with Berakh and Different Types of Hebrew

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  • From: "Paul Zellmer" <zellmer AT digitelone.com>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Prepositions with Berakh and Different Types of Hebrew
  • Date: Wed, 27 Oct 1999 09:03:54 +0800


Jonathan Bailey wrote:

> Well, the translation about the blessed state comes not from a
lexicon, but rather
> from a grammar, "Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax" by Bruce
Waltke and M.
> O'Connor which states that the common conception that the piel has the
double role
> of intensive and causative comes from a failure to understant the
factitive/resultative
> nature of the binyan. Though it destroys the English language (to the
point of making
> the meaning harder to understand), ultra-literal translations of piel
can and should
> quite often reveal that piel is interested in bringing about a state.
Pp 396-411 cover
> this discussion.
>
Then, Jon, I suggest you have a more basic problem. You are taking the
systemic approach presented in W&O and doubly applying it to this stem.
You see, the "normal" form for BRK, the form in which almost all of the
active verbs are found, *is* the pi`el. So the lexicographers, in their
analysis of what the verb means, are basically looking at a form whose
usage already accounts for whatever adjustment to meaning that the pi`el
might make. By your applying it again, you distort that meaning.

Lest the point be misunderstood, let me rephrase it. Lexicons which
divide the entry into stem groupings examine the word *in that stem* and
so the meanings they come up with reflect the nature of that stem. Had
BRK been found with significant entries in the qal, then there would be
some significance to applying the systemic meaning changes to the *qal*
gloss. But, since the word is rarely found in the "simple" stems, and
then, only as passives, the root's lexical meaning comes from the pi`el.
You misunderstand your baseline to apply the pi`el's systemic meaning
again.

<snip>

> I did not overlook your post, but if you will remember, my request
concerning le- was
> actually (originally) an attempt to get someone with ready access to a
search engine

I see where I misunderstood your intent. You might want to make your
requests more clear, because I believe I did answer the normal
interpretation of your initial request, which was: "Can anybody tell me
(with perhaps a verse reference) which preposition would be used in BH
for 'by' with the word berakh in a phrase such as 'I bless you by YHWH'.
I am looking at a paleo-Hebrew inscription here which has 'brktk lyhwh'
but I would have expected something like 'brktk byhwh' because I would
think the preposition would be 'be-', such as in the phrase 'diber YHWH
behoshe'a' (Hos 1,2) 'Adonai spoke through/by Hosea'"

I am still a bit confused about the exact reading of the text you are
looking at. In the original post, I interpret it as BRKTK LYHWH. But,
in your response to me, which hit my box almost a day after your
response to Baruch, you suggested that it might be BRKTKH LYHWH. I ask
only because I'm not quite sure what to make of the addition to the
verb. The verb does take the addition of objective pronouns, but I'm at
a loss to recognize which pronoun this would be. A 3ms minus the W,
perhaps? (I do admit that I have done no work in paleo-Hebrew, so if
this is a common marker for the 2ms object, as opposed to a K, please
forgive my ignorance.) If this is actually a case where there is no
stated "direct object," don't be too quick to reject the possible
translation of praise which is directed to YHWH. This is a well-known
use of the word, even in the pi`el, and has been the subject of a number
of theses and dissertations.

Hope your lexicons come in soon and unimpeded. The postal system
managed to lose one of my boxes, and I still find myself reaching for
books that are not there.

Paul









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