Biblical Hebrew Forum

[John Ronning <ronning AT nis.za>]

Alviero, you wrote:

>(quoting Keil-Delitzsch)
> *The extraordinary expression _lebiltî bo'û_  has probably come from
> the omission of Jod from the verb, which should be read _yabo'û_. As
> it stands, it can only be imperative, which is certainly not
> suitable. _Lebiltî_ is usually construed with the infinitive, but
> occasionally also with the temp. fin.;  with the imperf., which is
> what the sense here demands, in Ex. 20:20; with the perf., Jer.
> 23:14.*
>
> The principle of a shared consonant is being used by different
> authors; in this case, the final Yod of _lebiltî_ is shared with the
> following verbform.
>

I'm wondering if a similar explanation might apply to Gen
21:7
miy millel ...  who would have told Abraham that Sarah would
nurse?

Or is it OK as is (i.e. is GKC 106p right)?

If either millel or yemallel could be used, what would be
the reason for one over the other?

Thanks,

John