Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

On this one, let me just point out that BHS suggests an emendation of 
the final WAYYI$MF( to WEYA$MIA( comparing with verse 22, and NRSV 
apparently translates this form. If the text is not to be emended (I 
would rather not), I would suggest that this is a case of the second 
parallel line being enhanced from the first one: in the first, there 
is merely the intention to hear with the modal WEYIQTOL; in the 
second, the hearing is actualised with WAYYIQTOL. I would translate 
something like: "For who has stood in the council of YHWH that he 
might see and hear his word? Who has listened to his word and actually 
heard it?"

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: JER 23:18
Author:  <furuli AT online.no> at Internet
Date:    20/09/1999 14:46


Dear list-members?

What is the meaning of the two QATALs, the two WEYIQTOLs, and the one 
WAYYIQTOL in Jer 23:18? Does reference time coincide with speech time 
(something which means that we should translate with perfect or present), 
or is the relationship between speech time and reference time time 
different in some of the verbs? Particularly, is there any difference in 
meaning between the WAYYIQTOL  and the WEYIQTOLs?

Which comments do you have to the following three renderings:
1) For who stands in the council of YHWH and listens and hears his word? 
Who listens to his word and hears?"
2) "For who stands in the council of YHWH so he can see and hear his word? 
Who listens to his word so he can hear?"
3) "For who has stood in the council of YHWH that he might see and hear his 
word? Who has listened to his word that he might hear?"


Regards
Rolf


Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo



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