Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <brocine AT earthlink.net>]

Rolf writes:

>
> What is the meaning of the two QATALs, the two WEYIQTOLs,
and the one
> WAYYIQTOL in Jer 23:18? Does reference time coincide with
speech time
> (something which means that we should translate with
perfect or present),
> or is the relationship between speech time and reference
time time
> different in some of the verbs? Particularly, is there any
difference in
> meaning between the WAYYIQTOL  and the WEYIQTOLs?

The text critical notes in my BHS indicate that some of the
forms are questionable. However, while I find some of the
forms dubious, I do not believe any of them are impossible,
so I will read them as they stand for the sake of arguement.

The weyiqtols express reason ("...so that...") and the
wayyiqtol expresses result ("...so then...").

>
> Which comments do you have to the following three
renderings:
> 1) For who stands in the council of YHWH and listens and
hears his word?
> Who listens to his word and hears?"
> 2) "For who stands in the council of YHWH so he can see
and hear his word?
> Who listens to his word so he can hear?"
> 3) "For who has stood in the council of YHWH that he might
see and hear his
> word? Who has listened to his word that he might hear?"

I like 3 best for using the present perfect "has stood" and
"has listened" for the mi qatals.  It would be unusual
indeed for the series <mi qatal> to refer to anything other
than the past-with-a-present-significance (see 1 Sam
24:15(14)).  None of these translations recognizes any
difference between weyiqtol and wayyiqtol.  May I try?

"For who is a stander (or "has stood") in the council of
YHVH so that he may see and hear His Word?  Who is an
incliner (or "has inclined") toward His Word and so (has)
heard?"

Shalom,
Bryan


B. M. Rocine
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Living Word Church
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