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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Jer 15:6-9
  • Date: Wed, 15 Sep 1999 17:08:45 -0400


Dear Rolf,

Please can you specify the "clues" that this passage is future and not
past. Do you have any good reason, apart from any theories of the
meaning of verb forms, to reject the translation of RSV which takes
this passage as past? I would agree that the sudden transition to
future in verse 9 is awkward, but then there is a sudden change in
Hebrew verb form from QATAL (via WEQATAL) to YIQTOL (which you have
failed to count). Presumably this awkwardness (and perhaps
harmonisation with the wider context in separate "oracles" e.g.
vv.3-4, a rather dangerous procedure!) is one reason why NIV has
translated the whole passage as future. Do you have any other
explanation for this change of Hebrew verb form?

I wrote the above before seeing Randall's response and your response
to that. I should add that I am not here suggesting any kind of
"prophetic perfect", but rather that Jeremiah (writing at an unknown
time, I would guess during the reign of Zedekiah) is referring to a
past partial destruction (the first capture of Jerusalem?), and then
(at the end of verse 9) looking ahead to a future complete destruction
(the final capture of the city?).

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Jer 15:6-9
Author: <furuli AT online.no> at Internet
Date: 13/09/1999 12:21


Dear list-members,

In the mentioned verses I count 12 QATALs, 1 WEQATAL and 3 WAYYIQTOLs. I
cannot find any clue in the context suggesting that the events mantioned by
the prophet is past; i.e. that reference time comes before speech time.
However, I find many clues that they are future; i. e. reference time comes
after speech time. How would the particular model for Hebrew verbs that you
believe in, direct you in the translation of these verses? In other words,
how would you translate the verses?



Regards
Rolf


Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo



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