Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Clayton Javurek <javurek AT asu.edu>]

 

Clayton Javurek

javurek AT asu.edu

Does anyone have any ideas on the logic

of Genesis 38 being sandwiched in between

the selling of Joseph into slavery (Gen 37) and

the activity of Joseph in the house

of Potiphar, the Egyptian (Gen 38)?

 

One idea might be that Genesis 38 follows the

thread of thought by focusing Judah who

in Genesis 37 saved Joseph from dying

of exposure in a pit by having Joseph

sold into slavery instead.

 

Another idea might be the Genesis 38 shows

the woes that happened to Judah and thus

led to Judah's repentance about his abuse of Joseph.

Judahs' repentance

is demonstrated by his own willingness to be

the surety to his father and to Joseph should any thing

evil befall Benjamin as recorded in Genesis 43, 44.

 

Question: Since Judah and his brothers

already show themselves penitent before Joseph

in the Egyptian royal court, did Judah's own repentance

previously trigger some kind of chain-repentance in the

rest of his brothers about their maltreatment

of Joseph long before they ever appeared in the

Egyptian royal court, face to face with Joseph?

I know that nothing is said about this in the text,

but is this repentance on the part of Judah's

brothers something to be inferred?

 

I would like to hear any proposal about the reasons for the placement of Genesis 38 focusing on Judah right in the midst

of the section about Joseph in Egypt. Thanks.