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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re[2]: targums (Peter)
  • Date: Mon, 17 May 1999 18:08:14 -0400


Dear Ian,

Thank you for your reply. To save everyone's bandwidth, I will avoid
(unlike some others) copying back to you all your own text, but stick
to the relevant part.

You wrote: "If we are dealing with texts from both periods, why can't
one generalise over the time between them?" Precisely because you
don't know what happened in between. Suppose you had documents in
English from Edward the Confessor and documents in English from
Richard II, but nothing in between. By your method, you would assume
that English was used for the whole of the intervening period. But it
wasn't. Similarly, if the language situation in Maccabean and late
Roman times was similar, it doesn't mean that the time in between was
uniform.

Peter KIrk






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