Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Dear Professor,
I hope that I am not annoying you with my continual questions.  I
appreciate your assistance.
You have stated very plainly that weqatal is *not* modal/volitional, yet
in your _Syntax_ (the English translation), the situation is not clear
to me. Section 57 says that it is a "continuation form.... Often it
continues an imperative as also does the weyiqtol." In section 59 you
say, "...weqatal is the basic tense for giving an order or
instruction..." Orders and instructions are volitional, not simple
future.  In section 61, however, you say that the inverted forms
(weqatal, weqatalta, etc.) "simply indicate a series of future actions."
See also section 64.  Is section 59 poorly translated?  It seems to
contradict sections 61-64.  In Section 58, in the translation of Exodus
26:3-6, the weqatals are translated just like the weyiqtols: "you
shall..." (except for the last one, wehayah).
What have I missed?
--

Lee R. Martin
Pastor, Prospect Church of God, Cleveland, Tennessee
Instructor in Hebrew and Old Testament
Church of God Theological Seminary
http://earth.vol.com/~lmartin/