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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>
- To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
- Subject: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21
- Date: Wed, 10 Mar 1999 23:08:24 +0200
Dear Alviero,
I know you are a busy man, but could you please answer a yes or no to the
following question: Would you say that the question of Isaiah 38:22 came
after the account of v 21?
Regards
Rolf
Rolf Furuli
Lecturer in Semitic languages
University of Oslo
-
Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21
, (continued)
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Studium Biblicum Franciscanum, 03/08/1999
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Studium Biblicum Franciscanum, 03/08/1999
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Rolf Furuli, 03/08/1999
- Re[2]: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, peter_kirk, 03/08/1999
- Re[2]: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Rolf Furuli, 03/08/1999
- Re[3]: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, peter_kirk, 03/09/1999
- Re[3]: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Rolf Furuli, 03/10/1999
- Re[4]: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, peter_kirk, 03/11/1999
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, John Ronning, 03/11/1999
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, John Ronning, 03/11/1999
- 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Rolf Furuli, 03/11/1999
- Re: 2Ki 20:7 and Isa 38:21, Studium Biblicum Franciscanum, 03/12/1999
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