Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>]

Andy,

I haven't forgotten this.  I just haven't had time to look into it further.  
Perhaps
someone else on the list has the software that can at least give us the cases 
of M"(iM
in the Tanakh so we can see if there is in fact a difference in nuance.

Paul

Andrew C Smith wrote:

> Thanks to Peter and Paul for patiently explaining DEUT 10:12 as follows:
>
> >The reason is simply that this is not from-you but from-with-you, i.e.
> the word is made >up from M' which is the short prefixed form of MIN =
> from prefixed to (IM = with plus a >2nd person singular personal suffix.
>
> >If I recall correctly, we said that this word was *not* simply MiN plus
> the 2ms
> >objective pronoun.  Instead, it is (iM plus the 2ms objective pronoun
> with a prefixed
> >MiN.  Please note the hireq under the `ayin.  Cf Dt 18:16 for $)L with
> M"(iM
>
> Now that I have these good explanations, my question is, what does it
> mean? How would the meaning of the text have been different if the author
> had simply written Min without the (iM?? What semantic nuance is added to
> the sentence by the extra preposition?
>
> - Andy Smith

---
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines

zellmer AT faith.edu.ph