Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Lloyd Barre <barre AT c-zone.net>]

Dear List:

I can think no reason to conclude that the peoples of Israel and of Judah had 
existed since the second millennium.  The fact that they were called by other 
different designations and changed their social or political structure, 
"Israel" and "Judah" have always been separate.  The original name for Israel 
was Jacob (sometimes Jeshurun).  There are indication that adoption of the 
new name ,Israel, was a deliberate act.  It did not origin in tradition.  
There was no comparable term for the Yahwists.  Unlike "Israel," the name 
Judah does not contain within it a theophoric element.  The closest we come 
is with the word "Hebrew."  However, I take this to refer a specific group of 
Yahwists, those who had "crossed over" into Judah from the deserts to the 
south, southwest and southeast.  Following the takeover, it seems a central 
governing body over Judah was executed by a group called the"men of Judah" in 
Davidic times.  In Israel, the situation was politically more complex.  
Shechem !
for a while became the center of political power for the North.  From this 
perspective, one has to make a distinction between Israel proper and Israel 
as a name for both Israel and Judah.  In sociological terms, Israel defines 
only the northern tribes.  When a Yahwist from Judah was called an 
"Israelite" this was a name that defined a political relationship.  He was an 
Israelite only in name.  In fact, the word may have been created for just to 
reason--a term intended to transcend their difference and to unite with them 
under new, nationalistic designation.

These are some reason why I can think of no objection to the view that the 
existence of the people later known as "Israel" and "Judah" reaches into the 
2nd millennium.  Have I gotten off the track?  You responses would help me.

Thank you.

Sincerely,   

Lloyd M. Barre, Ph.D.

barre AT c-zone.net
http://www.angelfire.com/ca2/AncientIsrael