Biblical Hebrew Forum

[mjoseph <mjoseph AT terminal.cz>]

Matthew Anstey wrote:

>This is common in BH, its just the way the language is. Grammatical concord
>of gender does not always occur. The reason the masculine verb can do this
>is that it is unmarked, and so can cover both genders. The feminine verb is
>marked, and so only covers feminine nouns. Just as in English up until 20
>years ago (or so) "he" was unmarked for gender and "she" was marked. Now
>both are marked (in most discourses).

I know that the lack of accord is common, but the question is, "why?" 
Speakers of inflected languages simply *don't* talk like that (I speak 
two inflected languages fluently); they inflect the words automatically, 
whether speaking or writing. Even in English, except for Ebionics and 
parodies of Ebionics, no one says "I be" or "he go."

So why would (or even, "how could") a speaker of Hebrew write "they (fem. 
plur.) did (masc. sing.)"?

Mark Joseph